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CHAPTER THREE

Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations This diagnostic test can assist you in evaluating your current readiness for the Graduate Management Admission Test (GMAT). Sample questions representing each section of the GMAT are included to help you to pinpoint areas of strength and weakness in your knowledge base and your skill set. Don’t worry if you are unable to answer many or most of the questions at this point. The rest of the book contains information and resources to help you to maximize your GMAT score. We suggest that you make this diagnostic test as much like the real test as possible. Find a quiet location, free from distractions, and make sure that you have pencils and a timepiece. The simulated GMAT in this chapter consists of 78 multiple-choice questions and 2 essay tasks, divided into 4 sections. Please allow approximately 3 hours and 30 minutes to complete the diagnostic test. Each of the test sections should be taken in the time indicated at the beginning of the sections, and in the order in which they appear on this test. There are several different types of questions within each section. Make sure that you read and understand all directions before you begin. To achieve the best results, time yourself strictly on each section. You should answer each question before you move on to the next question to make this simulated test as much like the actual CAT test as possible. Remember to tear out the Answer Sheet included at the end of this chapter so that you can compare your answers to the correct answers listed on the Answer Key on page 44. Carefully review the explanations for any question that you answered incorrectly. Remember, your score on the actual GMAT will depend on many factors, including your level of preparedness and your fatigue level on test day.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

Section 1: Analysis of an Argument Time: 30 minutes 1 question Directions: This section asks you to analyze and critique an argument that is presented. This section does not ask you to respond with your perspective on the topic. Before you begin to write, you should organize your thoughts and plan out your response. Make sure to fully develop your points, but save some time to read over your response and make any necessary revisions. Your response will be evaluated on your ability to express your ideas clearly, to appropriately support your reasoning, and to apply the standards of written English.

The following appeared as part of a newspaper editorial. “As public concern over the speed at which many teenagers drive has increased, local authorities have become more vigilant in their efforts to arrest drivers who exceed the posted speeds within the city limits. Many young people have consequently begun to vandalize speed limit and other traffic signs. Thus, enforcement efforts have ironically resulted in an observed increase in vandalism.” Discuss how well-reasoned you find this argument. In your discussion, be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of evidence in the argument. For example, you might need to consider what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking and what alternative explanations might exist. Be sure to fully develop your response using information from your own observations, experiences, or reading.

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Section 2: Analysis of an Issue

Section 2: Analysis of an Issue Time: 30 minutes 1 question Directions: This section asks you to analyze an issue and offer your perspective on it. There is no correct answer, so consider all the possible viewpoints as you develop your own. Before you begin to write, you should organize your thoughts and plan out your response. Make sure to fully develop your points, but save some time to read over and revise your response. Your response will be evaluated on your ability to express your ideas clearly, to appropriately support your reasoning, and to apply the standards of written English.

“Responsibility for eating healthy food belongs to each individual person, not to the government.” Discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with this statement. Support your opinion with reasons and examples drawn from your own experience, reading, or observations.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

Section 3: Quantitative Time: 75 minutes 37 questions This section consists of two different types of questions: Problem-Solving and Data Sufficiency. To answer the questions, select the best answer from the answer choices given. The Problem-Solving questions require you to solve the problem and select the best answer choice. Numbers: All the numbers used are real numbers. Figures: A figure given for a question provides information that can be used to solve the problem. Figures are drawn to scale, as accurately as possible, unless it is stated otherwise. A line that appears straight should be considered a straight line. All figures given in this section lie in a plane unless it is stated otherwise. Each Data Sufficiency problem contains a question followed by two statements, (1) and (2). You are asked to determine whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question. You need to use the information given in the statements along with your knowledge of general mathematics and other common facts (such as the number of minutes in an hour or the number of days in a year) to determine which of the following is true: A Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. B Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. C BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. D EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question. E Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, and additional data specific to the problem is needed. In any Data Sufficiency problem that asks for the value of an unknown quantity, the statements are sufficient to answer the question only when you can determine exactly one value. Note: Answer the questions in the order presented. Do not skip questions and return to them later because you will not be able to do so on the actual exam.

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Section 3: Quantitative

1. If Susan was 31 years old 5 years ago, how old was she x years ago? (A) x – 36 (B) x – 26 (C) 36 – x (D) 26 – x (E) 26 + x 2. Kendra works 5 days per week and earns d dollars per day. Which of the following represents the amount Kendra earns at this job in w weeks? – (A) dw 5 – (B) 5w d – (C) 5d w w (D) – 5d (E) 5dw 3. A homeowner wants to put up fencing around three sides of a rectangular portion of his yard and leave 70 feet unfenced. If the rectangular portion of the yard being fenced has an area of 2,800 square feet, how many feet of fencing does he need? (A) 80 (B) 150 (C) 400 (D) 2,730 (E) 4,900 4. If rs ≠ 0, is t an integer? (1) t = 3r – 2s (2) r = s 5. If n is a positive integer and p = 3.021 × 10n, what is the value of n? (1) 3,021 < p < 302,100 (2) 103 < p < 105 6. Is the positive integer x a prime number? (1) x is even (2) 2 < x < 19

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

7. If 25 percent of 400 is 40 percent of x, then x = (A) 65 (B) 160 (C) 250 (D) 260 (E) 440 8. During the first week of May, a bicycle retailer sold 10 bicycles of a certain brand at $250.00 each. If, during the second week of May, 15 bicycles were sold at the sale price of $180.00 each, by what amount did the revenue from weekly sales of these bicycles increase during the second week? (A) $70 (B) $86 (C) $100 (D) $200 (E) $430 9. If the diameter of a circle is 10, then the circumference of the circle is (A) 5π (B) 10π (C) 20π (D) 25π (E) 100π 10. What is the value of the sum of a list of n odd integers? (1) n = 7 (2) The square of the number of integers on the list is 49 11. Commissioner R wants to schedule a 2-hour meeting on Friday for herself and three other commissioners, S, T, and U. Is there a 2-hour period on Friday that is open for all four commissioners? (1) On Friday, commissioners R and S have an open period from 10:00 a.m. to 2:00 p.m. (2) On Friday, commissioner T has an open period from 11:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. and commissioner U has an open period from 8:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m.

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Section 3: Quantitative

12. If 13 painters participated in a certain art gallery opening featuring oil paintings, how many different oil paintings were there? (1) The art gallery opening lasted 90 minutes. (2) The ratio of the number of painters who participated in the opening to the number of different oil paintings was 1 to 5. 13. Franco purchased brand R pens for $3.30 per box and brand S pens for $2.00 per box. If Franco purchased a total of 12 boxes of pens for $37.00, how many boxes of brand R pens did he purchase? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7 (E) 10 14. If the length and the width of a patio were each increased by 30 percent, what would be the percent increase in the area of the patio? (A) 69% (B) 24% (C) 43% (D) 26% (E) 20% 15. Amanda is a salesperson. Each week, she earns a salary of $480 plus 5 percent of the amount of her total sales that exceeds $1,000 for the week. If Amanda earned a total of $760 one week, what were her total sales that week? (A) $2,900 (B) $3,300 (C) $4,800 (D) $5,000 (E) $6,600 16. Does xy = 50? y – (1) 10 x =– 5 (2) 4x = 20 and 7y = 70

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

17. If x is a positive integer, is the square root of x an integer? (1) x is the square of an integer. (2) The square root of x is the square of an integer. 18. How many books were sold at a certain bookstore today? (1) A total of 200 books were sold at the bookstore yesterday, 20 fewer than twice the number sold today. (2) The number of books sold at the bookstore yesterday was 90 more than the number sold today. 19. If a2 = 4b2 and 3b = 9, what is the value of a2 + b? (A) 9 (B) 27 (C) 36 (D) 39 (E) 72 4? 20. The number 0.825 is how much greater than – 5 (A) 0.75 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.250 (D) 0.020 (E) 0.025 21. If x picture frames cost $6.00 each and y picture frames cost $13.00 each, then the average (arithmetic mean) cost in dollars per picture frame is equal to 6x + 13y (A) — x+y 6x + 13y (B) — xy 6x + 13y (C) — 11 78xy (D) — x+y 78xy (E) — 19 22. If p + q = r, what is the value of q? (1) p = 31 (2) r + 31 = p

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Section 3: Quantitative

23. If R is an integer between 1 and 100, what is the value of R? (1) One of R’s digits is 2 more than the other, and the sum of the digits is 10. (2) R > 50 24. What is the units digit of (11)4(22)3(36)2? (A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8 (E) 9

x feet x 2 feet

25. A flat triangular flower bed has the dimensions shown in the figure above. If x2 = 4, what is the area of the flower bed in square feet? 1 (A) – 4 1 (B) – 2 – 3 (C) √— 2 (D) 1 2– (E) — √3 26. Is the value of a2 + ab equal to 0? (1) a = 0 (2) b = 0 27. In isosceles triangle ABC, what is the measure of angle B? (1) The measure of angle A is 80°. (2) The measure of angle C is 50°.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

28. What were the gross revenues from ticket sales for a certain movie during the second week that it ran? (1) Gross revenues during the second week were $2.8 million less than during the first week. (2) Gross revenues during the third week were $4.2 million less than during the first week. 29. If Jill loses 7 pounds, she will weigh half as much as her brother. Together, they now weigh 343 pounds. What is Jill’s present weight, in pounds? (A) 107 (B) 119 (C) 127 (D) 133 (E) 143 30. (x + y)2 – 2xy = (A) x2 + y2 (B) x2 (C) 0 (D) x2 – y2 (E) (x – y)2 2 )4? 31. What is the decimal equivalent of (– 5 (A) 0.44 (B) 0.16 (C) 0.048 (D) 0.0256 (E) 0.0064 32. What is the value of x? (1) x6 = 729 (2) x5 < x4

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Section 3: Quantitative

33. How many balloons does Kenny have? (1) If Kenny had 3 fewer balloons, he would have only half as many as he actually has. (2) Kenny has twice as many blue balloons as red balloons. 34. If n is a prime number greater than 3, which of the following could be a prime number? (A) n2 n (B) – 2 (C) 3n (D) n – 6 (E) n2 + 1 35. At a certain restaurant, a meal cost $42, and there was no tax. If the tip was more than 15 percent but less than 20 percent of the cost of the meal, then the total amount paid must have been between (A) $42 and $45 (B) $45 and $46 (C) $46 and $47 (D) $47 and $48 (E) $48 and $51 36. If the sum of the lengths of the edges of a cube is 48, the volume of the cube is (A) 1,728 (B) 512 (C) 216 (D) 64 (E) 36 37. A certain highway has exits A, B, C, and D in that order. What is the distance from exit B to exit C? (1) The distance from exit A to exit C is 7 miles. (2) The distance from exit B to exit D is 9 miles.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

Section 4: Verbal Time: 75 minutes 41 questions This section consists of three different types of questions: Sentence Correction, Reading Comprehension, and Critical Reasoning. The Sentence Correction questions contain a sentence that is either partially or completely underlined. Following the sentence are five answer choices, each of which give you a different way to phrase the underlined portion of the sentence. Answer choice A repeats the original sentence; choose answer choice A if you do not want to change the underlined portion at all. The remaining answer choices are all different. Your answer choices will depend on the standards of written English, especially sentence construction, grammar, and word choice. The questions test your ability to express an idea clearly, simply, and correctly, without being awkward or redundant, while obeying all grammar rules. Each Reading Comprehension question is based on the content of the accompanying passage. Read the passage and choose the best answer from each of the questions that follow the passage. The correct answers will refer to information that is stated or implied in the passage. To answer the Critical Reasoning questions, read the question and any accompanying information, and then select the best answer choice from those given. Note: Answer the questions in the order presented. Do not skip questions and return to them later because you will not be able to do so on the actual exam.

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Section 4: Verbal

Questions 1–3 are based on the following passage. Line

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Mary Cassatt is revered as one of America’s important Impressionist artists. Her most prevalent theme was motherhood and women, which she depicted with both simplicity and gentle colors. Born in 1844, Cassatt spent most of her life in France and was greatly influenced by French artists such as Manet and Degas. Cassatt’s most wellknown paintings include Mother and Child, Lady at the Tea-Table, and Modern Women. Many of her pieces are featured in art museums across the country. Cassatt was a great practical supporter of the Impressionist movement as a whole, both by providing direct financial help and by promoting the works of Impressionists in the United States. In the late 19th century, she persuaded her brother Alexander to purchase paintings by European Impressionists such as Manet, Monet, Renoir, Degas, and Pissarro, making him the first important collector of such works in America. She also advised and encouraged her friends to augment their collections of works by Impressionists and other contemporary French artists. Following her sister’s death, Cassatt began to move away from Impressionism. She experimented with a variety of techniques, including asymmetric composition and informal, more natural positions. Cassatt demonstrated a versatility few of her contemporaries shared, and in 1904, France awarded Cassatt the Legion of Honor, a distinction honoring eminent service to France. Throughout her life, Mary Cassatt continued to promote the works of artists from around the world, often acting as a role model for young American painters. 1. The passage is primarily concerned with (A) Mary Cassatt’s impact on the success of French artists (B) the role models upon whom Mary Cassatt relied for inspiration (C) Mary Cassatt’s contribution to art and artists around the world (D) Mary Cassatt’s devotion to contemporary French artists (E) the importance placed on varying artistic techniques of the 19th century 2. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would characterize Mary Cassatt as being (A) focused on advancing the arts, both in her native country and abroad (B) unwilling to depart from the traditional techniques employed by Impressionists (C) disinterested in anything other than Impressionist paintings (D) frustrated by her inability to be as successful as Manet and Degas (E) hampered by a lack of support from her friends and colleagues

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

3. Each of the following aspects of Mary Cassatt’s artistic style is mentioned in the passage EXCEPT (A) her use of color (B) the brush strokes she employed (C) her experimentation with composition (D) her preferred subject matter (E) the positioning of her models 4. Few animals brave the hot sun of the desert. One exception to this is the fringetoed lizard, which moves at high speeds across the burning sand to catch insects. When the lizard gets too hot, it lifts its tail and body off the hot surface to stay cool, or if the heat becomes unbearable, it can burrow underground to escape the heat. Which one of the following, if true, least helps to explain the fringe-toed lizard’s choice to search for insects under the intense heat? (A) The chief predators of the lizard must take cover from the sun during midday. (B) Fewer insects are available as the day progresses. (C) Other scavengers chase the insects underground as soon as the temperature begins to drop. (D) The temperature inside the lizard’s burrow might exceed the surface temperature of the desert. (E) Lizards cool themselves by climbing onto vegetation and taking advantage of any available breezes. 5. In the movie “The Big Date,” released in 2004, there is a scene that is virtually identical to a scene in “Robber Barron,” which was made in 1986. The scene is so unique that it is highly unlikely that the similarity is mere coincidence. Therefore, it is probable that the makers of “The Big Date” saw “Robber Barron.” Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument? (A) A third movie that was probably seen by both the makers of “The Big Date” and “Robber Barron” was made in 1960 and contained essentially the same scene. (B) “The Big Date” is a comedy, whereas “Robber Barron” is a drama. (C) Both movies were released only in the United States. (D) The scene in “Robber Barron” was also included in the play and novel from which the movie was adapted. (E) According to critics, “The Big Date” was a far better movie than “Robber Barron” and contained many innovative scenes.

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Section 4: Verbal

6. In the last 10 years, more people relocated to the American South than the northern states. (A) the northern states (B) compared to northern states (C) did the northern states (D) northern states did (E) to the northern states 7. According to a study by the National Foundation for Youth Athletics, parents are enrolling about 5 million children in soccer programs each year, a number almost equivalent to the enrollment of the nation’s basketball programs. (A) equivalent to the enrollment of (B) as many as the enrollment of (C) as many as are enrolled in (D) equivalent to the number of children enrolled in (E) equal to those children who are enrolled in 8. Dr. Ryan is an excellent zookeeper his knowledge and experience in animal husbandry is unparalleled. (A) Dr. Ryan is an excellent zookeeper his knowledge and experience in animal husbandry is unparalleled. (B) Dr. Ryan’s knowledge and experience in animal husbandry is unparalleled that is why he is an excellent zookeeper. (C) Because of his unparalleled knowledge and experience in animal husbandry, Dr. Ryan is an excellent zookeeper. (D) His unparalleled animal husbandry knowledge and experience makes Dr. Ryan an excellent zookeeper. (E) Because of Dr. Ryan’s unparalleled knowledge and animal husbandry experience, he was a keeper of excellent zoos. 9. Motivational speakers, one who is deaf, will talk to our group about empowerment, personal development, and goal setting at the conference this weekend. (A) one who (B) and one of them who (C) one of which (D) one of them who (E) one of whom

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

Questions 10–12 are based on the following passage. Line

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Powerful geologic forces are at work on Earth, shifting the deceptively solid ground upon which we stand. The relatively new scientific concept of plate tectonics, first posited in the 1960s, has revolutionized our understanding of the volatile nature of the Earth. This theory has provided sound, scientific answers to questions speculated on for centuries regarding such events as earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. Although controversy still surrounds the idea of plate tectonics, enough evidence exists to make it the most plausible explanation for many geologic phenomena. The lithosphere, Earth’s outer crust, is composed of both oceanic crust and continental crust. This topmost layer was long held to be continuous and unbroken; however, it is actually comprised of many large segments, or plates, that vary in size and shape and move ponderously about at differing speeds atop a more viscous layer called the asthenosphere. While the movement is exceedingly slow—no more than a few centimeters per year—the effects on the planet over millions of years has been no less than catastrophic. At the plate boundaries, assorted deformations occur, based on the type of interaction that goes on between the plates. For example, when a thin oceanic plate collides with a thick continental plate, the oceanic plate is forced beneath the continental plate in a process called subduction. On the other hand, when two oceanic plates collide, one might be pushed under the other, causing hot magma to rise from the asthenosphere and forming submarine volcanoes; over time, volcanic debris piles up on the ocean floor until the mass breaks the surface and forms an island. Earth’s mountain ranges were formed when continental plates collided, and the crust was compressed and forced upward. When two plates slip sideways against each other at a transform-fault boundary, a tremendous amount of friction is created. This can result in an extraordinary buildup of pressure along the plate boundary. Upon the sudden release of this pressure, the plates jerk apart, resulting in an earthquake. The theory of plate tectonics offers a reason for the existence of mountains, volcanoes, and earthquakes, just as the presence of these phenomena provide support for plate tectonics. In addition, compelling evidence exists in the fossil record to promote the concept that the lithosphere has been roaming across the Earth’s surface for millions of years. Corresponding plant and animal fossils have been found along the matching coastlines of Africa and South America, even though those continents are now separated by the Atlantic Ocean. It is unlikely that prehistoric plants and animals were able to either traverse the Atlantic Ocean or form independently of one another on such vastly different land masses. It is more likely that these two land masses were once joined. 10. According to the passage, researchers believe that the collision of continental plates is responsible for (A) major differences in the fossil record (B) the large number of earthquakes along Africa’s coast (C) the creation of mountain ranges (D) an unlikely number of prehistoric plants and animals (E) numerous volcanic eruptions

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11. The theory that Africa and South America were once part of one large land mass would most seriously be undermined if it were found that (A) data concerning the age and type of fossils discovered on both continents was unreliable (B) other continents also had matching coastlines (C) the methods that determine the movement of continental plates could be improved upon (D) mountain ranges in North America were even older than originally thought (E) movement of the continental plates is steadily increasing 12. The passage suggests that if researchers had not found any fossil evidence to support the theory of plate tectonics, the researchers would have concluded that (A) plate tectonics is not a viable theory and should not be used to explain the current location of the continents on Earth (B) the results of ongoing studies of plate boundaries and other geologic phenomena are sufficient to prove the theory of plate tectonics (C) fossil evidence is generally never conclusive in proving scientific theories (D) plate tectonics will likely be disproved when further research is conducted (E) no plants or animals were alive at the time Africa and South America separated from one another 13. In a recent poll, only 24 percent of the public favor a leader who is as liberal or is even more liberal than the current leader. (A) as liberal or is even more liberal than (B) as liberal a leader as is (C) at least as liberal as being (D) a leader as liberal or more liberal than is (E) a leader that is more liberal, or at least as liberal as, 14. In 1977, a young wolf was observed entering a cave in pursuit of prey. Soon, other wolves started entering the cave, and over the next few seasons, this behavior became the norm for the entire wolf pack. Before 1977, no wolf had been seen entering or leaving the cave, and no signs of wolves were found in the cave. By 2004, the entire pack was spending most of its winters in or near the cave. Therefore, these wolves are capable of adopting and passing on new behaviors, and are not merely bound by their genetics.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

The argument above is based on which of the following assumptions? (A) Genetic mutations in wolves can occur in a fairly short timespan such as a few decades. (B) New behaviors that emerge in wolf populations over the course of a couple of decades are not necessarily genetically predetermined. (C) Only after certain patterns of behavior become the norm for a given animal population can it be inferred that a genetic mutation has occurred in that group. (D) The social actions of wolves are fully independent of their genetics. (E) The wolves’ new pattern of behavior will continue for several generations to come. 15. Prison inmates are far more likely to be mentally ill than members of the general population. This fact shows that the peculiar environment of prison, with its inherent stresses and deprivations, tends to cause or exacerbate symptoms of mental illness. The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the basis that the argument (A) fails to define the term “mentally ill” (B) presupposes that the prison environment is unique (C) simply restates the claim that “inherent stresses and deprivations” exist in prison without providing any evidence in support (D) takes a correlation between mental illness and prison as proof that prison causes mental illness (E) focuses on stress and deprivation only, while ignoring other characteristics of the prison environment 16. Literature expert: Great pieces of literature have often caused outrage among the public when first published; for example, Ulysses, by James Joyce, was banned for years due to its alleged obscenity, and Walt Whitman’s poem collection Leaves of Grass was banned for its use of explicit language. So, since literature often causes outrage and shock, we should not limit the use of public funds to support books that many people find obscene. Which of the following is an assumption that the literature expert’s argument requires in order to properly come to his or her conclusion? (A) Most literature is obscene. (B) James Joyce and Walt Whitman received public funding for their writing. (C) Literature was more shocking in the past. (D) Public funds should be used to support literature. (E) Literature should not be shocking or obscene.

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17. Jenny predicts that the author’s new novel will be as controversial as was his first three books. (A) will be as controversial as was (B) would be controversial such as (C) being as controversial as were (D) would be controversial as is (E) will be as controversial as were 18. Unlike Beethoven’s timeless music that endured through the decades, the “Ballad Babes” were a one-hit wonder whose music was soon forgotten. (A) Beethoven’s timeless music that endured (B) Beethoven and his timeless music, enduring (C) the timeless music of Beethoven that has endured (D) Beethoven, whose timeless music endured (E) Beethoven and his timeless music which endured Questions 19–22 are based on the following passage. Line

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More than 200 years ago, at the request of President Jefferson, the corps of volunteers for North Western Discovery set off under the command of Meriwether Lewis and William Clark to find the fastest water route across North America. The path they were to carve out would be the first of its kind; they were setting a course through the territory of potentially dangerous Indian tribes and ferocious animals. None but the fearless and inventive, the most resourceful and curious, would undertake such a venture. In 1803, virtually no one had attempted to cross the stretch of land between the mighty Mississippi River and the vast Pacific Ocean using only water routes. Intrepid pioneers such as Lewis and Clark deserve to be remembered now, some two centuries after their arduous journey into the unknown lands west of the Mississippi River. After receiving wilderness training in Washington, DC, Meriwether Lewis set out on July 5, 1803; picked up guns at Harpers Ferry; and then moved to Pittsburgh to pick up a 55-foot, commissioned keelboat. Floating it down the Ohio River, he met with William Clark in Indiana, who took over command of the boat and crew, while Lewis rode on to get supplies in St. Louis, which is located adjacent to the Mississippi River. Months later, in May, the party gathered in St. Louis. The 40-some men were to travel from there to the Pacific Ocean in only the keelboat and two smaller boats, all of which were moved by sails, towropes, poles, or oars. The beginning of their journey was a voyage of confirmation; traders had gathered information of various possible water routes to the Pacific, and Lewis and Clark’s mission was to confirm the truth and observe anything else of importance along the way. They were also to catalogue new species of plants and animals that they encountered, and work toward peace with several Indian tribes. History tells us that the few messages

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

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the men were able to send back told of their health and high spirits. They were all eager to explore just what might lie beyond the Mississippi. Although the explorers were well supplied and well equipped, their journey was still a dangerous one. Until this point in time, the only other individuals to have crossed the “wild west” were fur traders and trappers. It was largely Indian territory, and although most tribes, such as the Oto, were friendly, the Missouri and the Mandan, and the Sioux and the Blackfeet, tried to impede the adventurers’ progress on more than one occasion. Illness claimed the life of one man early, but despite the strenuous pace of the expedition, there were no further losses. In spite of the long winters and harsh conditions of wilderness living, the travelers continued to forge west in search of an efficient trade route using only the rivers. In September 1806, some three years after they started on their voyage, Lewis, Clark, and their team made it to the Pacific Ocean. Relying on the Missouri and Columbia rivers as their main “highways,” and taking the help of friendly Indian tribes whenever they could, the expedition was a success, and served as an example for all manner of future westward expansion. 19. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) discuss historical opposition to U.S. expansion into Indian territory (B) describe an important historical event (C) critique a presidential decision (D) compare and contrast a historical situation with a present-day one (E) explain the methods used by pioneers in exploring new territory 20. According to the passage, Meriwether Lewis and William Clark were hired to (A) engage unfriendly Indian tribes in battle to secure safe passage through the wilderness (B) identify and name all the rivers between Washington, DC, and the Pacific Ocean (C) determine the quickest way to travel by water from the Mississippi River to the Pacific Ocean (D) chart the safest route across land from all points east of the Mississippi River (E) calculate the length of time it would take a group of people to travel through the wilderness

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21. The author lists the different means by which Lewis and Clark’s boats were moved in order to (A) refute the position taken by President Jefferson that Lewis and Clark should travel by land instead of by water (B) analyze the various ways in which people traveled across the wilderness (C) demonstrate that Lewis and Clark’s boats were unique in their design and function (D) emphasize the complexity of the venture that Lewis and Clark were about to undertake (E) support the argument that travel on the Mississippi River was not as common as most people thought 22. The author uses the word intrepid in line 8 most likely to emphasize that the (A) journey would most likely come to a devastating end (B) information given to Lewis and Clark regarding their trip was incomplete (C) explorers would need to be courageous to successfully complete their mission (D) decision to explore the vast wilderness west of the Mississippi River was hastily made (E) search for a trade route would be conducted in vain 23. Having endured a tumultuous childhood, Theresa has no conception of the moral difference between right and wrong, only between what is legally permitted and what is not. When Theresa committed her offense, she did not recognize the fact that it was a morally wrong act, despite knowing that it was illegal. From the statements above, which of the following can be properly inferred? (A) Theresa committed no offense that was not legally permissible. (B) Theresa did something that was morally wrong. (C) Moral ignorance is never excusable in the eyes of the law. (D) Theresa’s childhood could have provided more sufficient moral training, even in the circumstances. (E) Theresa could now be taught the moral difference between right and wrong.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

24. Psychologist: Some theories posit completely different causal mechanisms from those posited by the Smith psychological theory that are more successful at predicting human behavior. Therefore, the Smith theory of behavior, no matter how elegant or complex, ought to be abandoned in favor of these other theories. Which of the following is an assumption made in drawing the conclusion above? (A) The Smith theory has led to intriguing predictions, which have been shown to be false, about the causes of human behavior. (B) A psychological theory with greater predictive success than another is scientifically preferable. (C) The Smith theory has had remarkable success in predicting how people will behave in certain situations. (D) Measuring the predictive success of a psychological theory always involves considering other theories that attempt to explain the same phenomena. (E) Scientific theories become impractical if they posit causal mechanisms beyond a certain level of complexity. 25. A wildlife expert predicts that the reintroduction of wolves to Yellowstone National Park would have failed if the wolves traveled beyond the borders of the park onto privately owned land. (A) would have failed if the wolves traveled (B) will fail if the wolves travel (C) will have failed if the wolves begin traveling (D) has failed because the wolves traveling (E) should be failing if the wolves traveling 26. Joy took voice lessons last year, and she has been singing in the choir ever since. (A) and she has been singing in the choir ever since (B) and since then on she has been singing in the choir (C) when ever since she sings in the choir (D) she has been singing in the choir since then (E) and she sings in the choir since then

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Section 4: Verbal

27. New studies indicate that, if they have a strong support group, people succeed in their attempts to quit smoking. (A) New studies indicate that, if they have a strong support group, people succeed in their attempts to quit smoking. (B) New studies indicate that, if they succeed in their attempts to quit smoking, people have a strong support group. (C) New studies indicate that, if people have a strong support group, they succeed in their attempts to quit smoking. (D) If people have a strong support group, new studies, they indicate that they succeed in their attempts to quit smoking. (E) A strong support group, new studies indicate, if they have one, people succeed in their attempts to quit smoking. 28. As Earth’s fifth largest continent, Antarctica has a smaller land mass than North America, yet contains 70 percent of Earth’s fresh water resources. (A) As Earth’s fifth largest continent, (B) As Earth’s fifth largest, continent, (C) As the fifth largest continent on Earth; (D) As the fifth, largest, continent of Earth, (E) Due to it being Earth’s fifth largest continent, Questions 29–32 are based on the following passage. Adapted from Theodore Roosevelt and His Times, by Harold Howland ©1912. Line

(5)

(10)

(15)

There is a line of Browning’s that should stand as an epitaph for Theodore Roosevelt: “I WAS EVER A FIGHTER.” That was the essence of the man, the keynote of his career. He met everything in life with a challenge. If it was righteous, he fought for it; if it was evil, he hurled the full weight of his finality against it. He never capitulated, never sidestepped, never fought foul. He carried the fight to the enemy. His first fight was for health and bodily vigor. It began at the age of nine. Physically he was a weakling, his thin and ill-developed body racked with asthma. But it was only the physical power that was wanting, never the intellectual or the spiritual. He owed to his father, the first Theodore, the wise counsel that launched him on his determined contest against ill health. On the third floor of the house on East Twentieth Street in New York where he was born, October 27, 1858, his father had constructed an outdoor gymnasium. It was an impressive moment, Roosevelt used to say in later years, when his father first led him into that gymnasium and said to him, “Theodore, you have the brains, but brains are of comparatively little use without the body; you have got to make your body, and it lies with you to make it. It’s dull, hard work, but you can do it.” The boy knew that his father was right, and so he took up the drudgery of daily, monotonous exercise with bars and rings and weights.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

(20)

(25)

(30)

(35)

(40)

All through his boyhood, the young Theodore Roosevelt kept up his fight for strength. He was too delicate to attend school, and was taught by private tutors in the city. He spent many of his summers, and sometimes some of the winter months, in the woods of Maine. These outings he thoroughly enjoyed, but it is certain that the main motive which sent him into the rough life of the woods to hunt and trap, to paddle and row and swing an axe, was the obstinate determination to make himself physically fit. His fight for bodily power went on through his college years at Harvard and during the years that he spent in ranch life in the West. He was always intensely interested in boxing, although he was never of anything like championship caliber in the ring. His first impulse to learn to defend himself with his hands had a characteristic birth. During one of his periodical attacks of asthma, he was sent alone to pristine Moosehead Lake in Maine for relief. On the last stage of the journey, he met two boys of about his own age. They quickly found, he says, in his autobiography, that he was “a foreordained and predestined victim” for their rough teasing, and they “industriously proceeded to make life miserable” for their fellow traveler. At last young Roosevelt could endure their persecutions no longer, and tried to fight. Great was his discomfiture when he discovered that either of them alone could handle him “with easy contempt.” They hurt him little, but, what was doubtless far more humiliating, they prevented him from doing any damage whatever in return. The experience taught the boy, better than any good advice could have done, that he must learn to defend himself. Since he had little natural prowess, he realized that he must supply its place by training. He secured his father’s approval for a course of boxing lessons, upon which he entered at once. He has described himself as a “painfully slow and awkward pupil,” who worked for two or three years before he made any perceptible progress. 29. The author’s main point is that (A) Theodore Roosevelt ultimately learned to defend himself in the boxing ring. (B) Theodore Roosevelt’s physical shortcomings should have been more closely evaluated by his parents. (C) Theodore Roosevelt’s tenacity allowed him to overcome the problems he faced because of his poorly developed physique. (D) Theodore Roosevelt underwent years of physical therapy to become a healthy, active adult. (E) Theodore Roosevelt’s inability to protect himself against physical attack lead to his almost constant persecution.

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Section 4: Verbal

30. Which of the following can be inferred about Theodore Roosevelt from information in the third paragraph? (A) He was stubborn and perseverant. (B) He was completely self-sufficient as a boy. (C) He was too weak to be on his own. (D) He was motivated by fear and self-loathing. (E) He was privileged and spoiled. 31. In using the word discomfiture (line 34), the author most clearly conveys (A) Roosevelt’s ambivalence toward his failure to defend himself (B) Roosevelt’s concern that his physical limitations would place him in jeopardy (C) sympathy for the boys who would most likely suffer at Roosevelt’s hands (D) appreciation of Roosevelt’s strength and determination (E) denial of any problems between Roosevelt and the boys he met on his journey 32. The passage suggests which of the following about Roosevelt’s response to his father’s construction of an outdoor gymnasium? (A) Roosevelt was thrilled with the opportunity to improve upon his physical appearance. (B) Roosevelt rejected his father’s attempt to help, and subsequently moved to Maine. (C) Roosevelt enthusiastically supported his father’s idea. (D) Roosevelt was disappointed that he could not utilize the gymnasium to its fullest extent. (E) Roosevelt appreciated his father’s guidance and took his father’s advice to heart. 33. Jane and William will represent our school at the modern arts convention, for their creations have been outstanding this semester. (A) convention, for their creations have been outstanding this semester (B) convention, their creations in this having been outstanding this semester (C) convention; their creations this semester have been outstanding (D) convention; they having been outstanding in their creations this semester (E) convention, for they have this semester done outstanding creations

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

34. From 1999 to 2002 sales of new cars decreased as more preowned cars entered the market. (A) From 1999 to 2002 sales of new cars decreased as more preowned cars entered the market. (B) As more preowned cars entered the market, from 1999 to 2002 sales of new cars decreased. (C) Occurring between 1999 and 2002, sales of new cars decreased and more preowned cars entered the market. (D) More preowned cars entered the market between 1999 and 2002, the sales of new cars decreased. (E) Decreased as more preowned cars entered the market the sales of new cars from 1999 to 2002. 35. The volunteer committee, consisting of members of the community, and is funded by city taxes. (A) committee, consisting of members of the community, and is funded by city taxes (B) committee to consist of community members and to be funded by city taxes (C) committee is funded by city taxes, it consists of community members (D) committee, funded by city taxes, consisting of community members (E) committee, consisting of community members, is funded by city taxes 36. Business Analyst: In a recent survey, employees of Company X were asked to state which one of the following two scenarios they would prefer: (1) Company X is the industry leader with gross revenues of $100 million, and Company Y is second, with gross revenues of $90 million or (2) Company Y is the industry leader with gross revenues of $120 million and Company X is second, with gross revenues of $110 million. Despite the fact that under the scenario 2, Company X would have higher gross revenues than under scenario 1, the majority of respondents stated that they preferred scenario 1.

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Section 4: Verbal

Which of the following, if true, would most help to explain the surprising survey results described by the business analyst? (A) Most employees of Company X believe that their company has a higher growth rate than Company Y. (B) Most employees of Company X want their company to have gross revenues of more than $120 million. (C) Most employees of Company X believe that their personal welfare is not connected to the company’s gross revenues. (D) Most employees of Company X want their company to be more powerful than Company Y. (E) Most employees of Company X want their company to make products of the highest quality. 37. Physician: Research has shown that substance X causes cancer in rabbits. Even though similar research has never been done on humans, and probably never will be, the use of substance X should be banned. That substance X causes cancer in rabbits figures in the argument in which of the following ways? (A) It is presented as the hazard that the physician is concerned with preventing. (B) It is presented as a benefit of not acting on the recommendation of that conclusion. (C) It is presented as evidence for the claim that similar research will never be done on humans. (D) It is presented as a finding that motivates the course of action advocated in the conclusion. (E) It is presented as evidence for the claim that similar research has never been done on humans. 38. Carrie: The title of the seminar we just attended, “Being a Good Husband,” is misleading. A title should describe all the contents of a seminar, but nearly half of this seminar was involved with discussing wives. Alan: I don’t think the title is misleading. It seems to me that husbands and wives are two sides of one relationship: marriage. One cannot be a husband without a wife.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

Which of the following is most strongly supported by the preceding discussion? (A) Carrie believes that the seminar should have been entitled “Being a Good Wife.” (B) Alan believes that no real distinction exists between the roles of husband and wife. (C) Carrie and Alan disagree about the relevance of traditional marriage. (D) Carrie and Alan disagree about the overall value of the seminar. (E) Carrie believes that the seminar title should not mention husbands without mentioning wives. 39. Frustration in response to insults is unreasonable, for insults are merely assertions that someone has undesirable characteristics. If such an assertion is false, the insulted party ought to pity the ignorance prompting the insult. If it is true, the insulted party should be thankful for such useful information. Which of the following, if assumed, enables the argument’s conclusion to be properly drawn? (A) Actions prompted by ignorance warrant negative reactions. (B) Frustration is a reasonable response to useful information. (C) Frustration is an unreasonable response to any action that should prompt pity or gratitude. (D) Gratitude and pity are reasonable responses to some forms of hostile or insensitive behavior. (E) Pity is the only reasonable reaction to people with undesirable characteristics. 40. The high school band traveled to Europe, playing concerts, studying with other students, and took in the beautiful scenery. (A) took in the beautiful scenery (B) taking in the beautiful scenery (C) the beautiful scenery taking in (D) the beautiful scenery they took in (E) the beautiful scenery was taken in

43

Section 4: Verbal

41. Obesity is more common among American teenagers now than ever before. (A) than (B) than it was (C) than has been (D) compared with (E) in terms of

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

Answer Key Section 3

Section 4

1. C

20. E

1. C

22. C

2. E

21. A

2. A

23. B

3. B

22. B

3. B

24. B

4. E

23. C

4. E

25. B

5. D

24. D

5. A

26. A

6. C

25. C

6. E

27. C

7. C

26. A

7. D

28. A

8. D

27. C

8. C

29. C

9. B

28. E

9. E

30. A

10. E

29. B

10. C

31. B

11. C

30. A

11. A

32. E

12. B

31. D

12. B

33. C

13. E

32. C

13. B

34. A

14. A

33. A

14. B

35. E

15. E

34. D

15. D

36. D

16. D

35. E

16. D

37. D

17. D

36. D

17. E

38. E

18. A

37. E

18. D

39. C

19. B

40. B

20. C

41. A

19. D

21. D

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Answers and Explanations

Answers and Explanations Analytical Writing: Sections 1 and 2 Because grading the essay is subjective, we’ve chosen not to include any “graded” essays here. Your best bet is to have someone you trust, such as your personal tutor, read your essays and give you an honest critique. Make the grading criteria mentioned in Chapter 6, “GMAT Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA),” available to whomever grades your essays. If you plan on grading your own essays, review the grading criteria and be as honest as possible regarding the structure, development, organization, technique, and appropriateness of your writing. Focus on your weak areas and continue to practice to improve your writing skills.

Quantitative—Section 3 1. The correct answer is C. The first step in solving this problem is to determine how old Susan is now. You are given that Susan was 31 years old 5 years ago, so her current age is 31 + 5, or 36. Susan is 36 now; x years ago, she was x years younger than she is now, so her age was 36 – x. 2. The correct answer is E. You are given that Kendra works 5 days per week and earns d dollars per day. This means that Kendra earns 5 times d, or 5d dollars per week. To calculate the amount she would earn in w weeks, multiply the amount that she earns in one week, 5d, by w. Kendra earns 5dw each week. 3. The correct answer is B. To solve this problem, you must remember that the area of a rectangle is found by multiplying the length by the width. You are given that the area of the entire yard is 2,800 square feet. You are also given that the homeowner wants to fence three sides of his yard and leave 70 feet unfenced, which means that one side of the yard must equal 70 feet. Set either the length or the width equal to 70, and set the other side equal to x. The area of the rectangular portion of the yard is 70x = 2,800 feet. Solve for x as follows: x = 2,800 ÷ 70 x = 40 Now you know the length and the width: 40 and 70. Because the homeowner wants to leave one 70-foot side unfenced, you can add the lengths of the three remaining sides to find the amount of fencing that he needs: 40 + 40 + 70, or 150 feet. 4. The correct answer is E. An integer is any positive or negative whole number, including 0. Because you are given that r times s does not equal 0, you know that neither r nor s is 0. However, you do not know whether either r or s is an integer; one or the other could be a fraction. Therefore, it is possible that 3r – 2s is a fraction, and statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question, because it does not provide any information about t. Likewise, both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

5. The correct answer is D. To correctly answer this question, you must know something about scientific notation. The number 3,021 is equivalent to 3.021 × 103, because the decimal point is moved three places to the right. The number 302,100 is equivalent to 3.021 × 105, because the decimal point is moved five places to the right. Therefore, because you are given that n is a positive integer, n must be equal to 4, and statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question. Likewise, if p is between 103 and 105, and you are given that n is a positive integer, n must be equal to 4 and statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question. 6. The correct answer is C. If x is even, it could be equal to 2, which is a prime number. On the other hand, it could be equal to any other even number, none of which are prime numbers. Statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. If x is between 2 and 19, it could be 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, or 17, all of which are prime numbers. On the other hand, it could be 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, 14, 15, or 16, none of which are prime numbers. Statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Because no even prime numbers exist between 2 and 19, both statements together are sufficient to answer the question. 7. The correct answer is C. To solve this problem, first calculate 25 percent of 400. You can determine it logically, by recognizing that 50 percent of 400 is 200, and 50 1 , you can percent of 200 is 100. Also, if you know that 25 percent is equivalent to – 4 easily determine that 25 percent of 400 is 100. You now know that 100 is 40 percent of some number, x. Set up a proportion as follows: 100 is to x as 40 percent is to 100 percent. 40 ; cross multiply and solve for x. 100 — — x = 100 40x = 10,000 x = 250 8. The correct answer is D. To solve this problem, first calculate the total sales during each week. The total sales revenue from bicycles during the first week was 10(250), or $2,500.00. During the second week, total sales revenue was 15(18), or $2,700. Therefore, the revenue from weekly sales of the bicycles increased by $200 during the second week. 9. The correct answer is B. To solve this problem, you must remember that the formula for the circumference of a circle is πd. You are given that the diameter is 10, so the circumference is 10π. If you calculated the area of the circle instead (πr2), you would have gotten answer choice D. 10. The correct answer is E. Some information about the value of the integers themselves is required to determine the value of their sum. In statement (1), only the number of integers in the list (n) is given, with no clues as to the identity of the integers themselves; therefore, statement (1) alone is not sufficient. Likewise, in statement (2), only information about the number of integers in the list is given, with no clues as to the identity of the integers themselves; therefore, statement (2) alone is not sufficient. When both statements are taken together, the information is still about the number of integers and not the integers themselves; both statements together are still not sufficient.

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Answers and Explanations

11. The correct answer is C. Statement (1) alone is not sufficient because it does not provide information about commissioners T and U. Statement (2) alone is not sufficient because it only gives information about T and U. However, the two statements together show that no meeting is possible between the four commissioners. 12. The correct answer is B. Because statement (1) only provides information regarding the length of the art gallery opening, and provides no information regarding the number and type of oil paintings on display at the gallery opening, it is not sufficient to answer the question. However, using the information in statement (2) along with the information given in the question, you can determine the number of different oil paintings at the gallery opening as follows: The ratio of painters to paintings is 1:5, and the number of painters is 13. So, for every painter, there were 5 paintings, which means that there were 65 paintings. 13. The correct answer is E. To solve this problem, let r stand for the number of brand R pens that Franco purchased. Because he purchased a total of 12 boxes of pens, the number of brand S pens that he purchased must be equivalent to 12 – r. Set up an equation as follows, accounting for the price per box of each brand of pen, and solve for r: 3.3r + 2(12 – r) = 37 3.3r + 24 – 2r = 37 3.3r – 2r = 13 1.3r = 13 r = 10 14. The correct answer is A. If the length and the width of the patio floor are l and w, respectively, the new length and width are 1.30l and 1.30w, respectively. Remember that you are increasing each of the dimensions by 30 percent, or 0.30. Solve for the percent increase, as follows: (1.3l )(1.3w) = 1.69lw. This means that the percent increase in area is 69%, because 1.69 is 0.69 greater than 1, and 0.69 is the decimal equivalent of 69%. 15. The correct answer is E. The first step in solving this problem is to determine the amount of money that Amanda earned in commissions during the week. Because her base salary is $480, she must have earned $760 – $480, or $280 in commissions that week, which means that $280 is 5% (0.05) of her total sales over $1,000 for the week. Set up the following equations and solve for her total sales (x): 280 = 0.05(x – 1,000) 280 = 0.05x – 50 330 = 0.05x 6,600 = x

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

16. The correct answer is D. When you cross-multiply the equation in statement (1) you get xy = 50, which means that statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question. Likewise, when you solve for x in statement (2), you find that x = 5, and when you solve for y in statement (2), you find that y = 10; therefore, statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question. 17. The correct answer is D. Statement (1) can be expressed as x = t2, where t is any nonzero integer. In this case, the square root of x equals the square root of t2, which is t or –t, depending on whether t is positive or negative, respectively. In either case, the square root of x is an integer. Therefore, statement (1) alone is sufficient. In statement (2), the square of an integer must also be an integer; both statements alone are sufficient to answer the question. 18. The correct answer is A. To solve this problem, set the total number of books sold at the bookstore today to n. Statement (1) can be written as 200 = 2n – 20. You can solve this equation for n, and statement (1) alone is sufficient. From statement (2) alone, you can determine only that the number of books sold yesterday was n + 90. Because the number sold yesterday is unknown, n cannot be determined, and statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 19. The correct answer is D. The first step in solving this problem is to solve for b in the second equation. You are given that 3b = 9, which means that b = 3. Now, substitute 3 for b in the first equation and solve for a, as follows: a2 = 4(3)2 a2 = 36 a=6 When you substitute 3 for b and 36 for a2 in the third equation and solve, the result is 39. 4 to 20. The correct answer is E. The first step in solving this problem is to convert – 5 a decimal. Do this by dividing the numerator (4) by the denominator (5): 4 ÷ 5 = 0.8. Now, subtract 0.8 from 0.825 to get 0.025. 21. The correct answer is A. The average is equal to the total cost of the frames divided by the total number of frames. The total number of frames is x + y, and their total cost is 6x +13y dollars. Therefore, the average cost per frame is as follows: 6x +13y — x+y 22. The correct answer is B. Because you know that p + q = r, you also know that q = r – p. Statement (1) alone is not sufficient because you are not given any information about r. On the other hand, statement (2) alone is sufficient because r – p = –31, and you know that r – p = q.

49

Answers and Explanations

23. The correct answer is C. You can deduce from statement (1) that R is a two-digit number. If x and y are the digits of R, statement (1) can be expressed as x = y + 2 and x + y = 10. When you substitute y + 2 for x in the second equation, you find that y = 4. Therefore, R could be either 46 or 64, and statement (1) alone is not sufficient. Statement (2) alone is not sufficient because it only tells you that R is less than 50. However, both statements together provide you with the answer of 46. 24. The correct answer is D. To solve this problem, first find the units, or “ones,” digit of each of the separate elements of the expression, as follows: The units digit of (11)4 is 1, because 1 × 1 × 1 × 1 = 1. The units digit of (22)3 is 8, because 2 × 2 × 2 = 8. The units digit of (36)2 is 6, because 6 × 6 = 36, and the units digit of 36 is 6. Therefore, the units digit of (11)4(22)3(36)2 is 8, because 1 × 8 × 6 = 48, and the units digit of 48 is 8. 1 (b)(h) , where 25. The correct answer is C. The formula for the area of a triangle is – 2 x , but you must apply b is the base and h is the height. You are given the height as – 2 the Pythagorean theorem to find the base. The Pythagorean theorem states that a2 + b2 = c2, where c is the hypotenuse. The hypotenuse is equal to x, so the hypotenuse squared is equal to x2, which is given as 4. This means that x must x (the height) must equal 1. You can now solve for b using equal 2 and, therefore, – 2 the Pythagorean theorem as follows: 12 + b2 = 4 b2 = 4 – 1 b2 = 3 – b = √3 Calculate the area of the triangle as follows: 1 (b)(h) A=– 2 1 (√– 3)(1) A=– 2 – 3 A = √– 2 26. The correct answer is A. If a = 0, then a2 = 0, and ab = 0, so a2 + ab = 0. Therefore, statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question. If b = 0, then ab = 0, but you cannot determine the value of a2, so statement (2) is not sufficient to answer the question. 27. The correct answer is C. An isosceles triangle has two congruent sides, and the angles opposite those sides are also congruent. In any triangle, the total of all three interior angles is 180 degrees. Because you do not know which sides are congruent, neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question; angle B could be either 80° or 50°. However, if you take both statements together, you know that angle B must equal 50°, because 180° – 80° – 50° = 50°.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

28. The correct answer is E. Statement (1) alone is not sufficient because the amount of the gross revenues during the first week is unknown. Likewise, statement (2) alone is not sufficient because no information is given about the gross revenues in the second week. Statements (1) and (2) together are not sufficient because you need information about the gross revenues of the first and third weeks to solve the problem. 29. The correct answer is B. To solve this problem, set Jill’s present weight to x and set her brother’s weight to y. According to information in the problem, x + y = 343. The problem also states that if Jill loses 7 pounds (x – 7), she will weigh half as y y much as her brother (–). This can be expressed mathematically as x – 7 = – . You 2 2 now have a system of equations that must be solved. The most direct method of determining Jill’s weight now is to solve the first equation for y to get y = 343 – x. Now, substitute that value for y in the second equation and solve for x, as follows: – x) x – 7 = (343 — 2 2(x – 7) = 343 – x 2x – 14 = 343 – x 3x = 357 x =119 30. The correct answer is A. To solve this problem, you should first square the value(x + y), using the FOIL method as follows: (x + y)(x + y) = First terms: (x)(x) = x2 Outside terms: (x)(y) = xy Inside terms: (x)(y) = xy Last terms: (y)(y) =y2 Now add the terms to get x2 + xy + xy + y2, which simplifies to x2 + 2xy + y2. Next, subtract 2xy from that value, as the problem indicates: x2 + 2xy + y2 – 2xy = x2 + y2 2 to 0.40, its decimal equivalent. 31. The correct answer is D. To solve, first convert – 5 Then consider the exponent, as follows: 0.404 = (0.40) (0.40) (0.40) (0.40) = 0.0256 You could also simply have calculated 44 and moved the decimal point accordingly. 32. The correct answer is C. If you know that x6 = 729, you also know that x = 6√— 729 . Because x is raised to an even power, it could be either positive or negative; therefore, statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. If x5 < x4, then x must be any negative number, and statement (2) alone is not sufficient to

51

Answers and Explanations

answer the question. However, if you take both statements together, you know that x must be the negative sixth root of 729. Therefore, both statements together are sufficient to answer the question. 33. The correct answer is A. To solve this problem, set the number of balloons that Kenny has to x. According to statement (1), if Kenny had x – 3 balloons, the x . You can set up an equation and number of balloons would be equivalent to – 2 solve for x, so statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question. However, statement (2) provides no information regarding the total number of balloons, only that Kenny has twice as many blue balloons as he has red balloons. Because you don’t know how many red balloons Kenny has, statement (2) is not sufficient to answer the question. 34. The correct answer is D. The easiest way to solve this problem is to pick a number for n, based on the information given in the question. You know that 7 is a prime number greater than 3, so substitute 7 for n in the answer choices until the result is a prime number, as follows: Answer choice A: 72 = 49, which is not a prime number. 7 = 3.5, which is not a prime number. Answer choice B: – 2 Answer choice C: 3(7) = 21, which is not a prime number. Answer choice D: 7 – 6 = 1, which is a prime number, so n – 6 could be a prime number and this is the correct answer. 35. The correct answer is E. To solve this problem, calculate the amount of both a 15 percent tip and a 20 percent tip. The total amount paid for the meal will be between $42 + 15% of $42 and $42 + 20% of $42: $42 × 1.15 = $48.30 $42 × 1.20 = $50.40 The only answer choice that includes values between $48.30 and $50.40 is answer choice E. 36. The correct answer is D. To solve this problem, you must remember that a cube has 12 equivalent edges. So, if the sum of the lengths of the edges is 48, the length of each edge must be 48 ÷ 12, or 4. The volume of a cube is calculated by “cubing” the length of a side; in other words, raise the length of a side to the third power. Therefore, the volume of this cube is 43, or 4 × 4 × 4, which is 64. 37. The correct answer is E. To answer this question, you need information about the distance between all four exits. Statement (1) alone does not give the distance from A to B or the distance from B to C. Similarly, statement (2) alone does not give the distance from B to C or C to D. Likewise, statements (1) and (2) together do not provide the distance between B and C, so neither statement is sufficient to answer the question.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

Verbal—Section 4 1. The best answer is C. The passage focuses primarily on Mary Cassatt’s dedication to and support of both American and European art and artists. According to the passage, “Cassatt was a great practical supporter of the Impressionist movement as a whole…” and “Throughout her life, Mary Cassatt continued to promote the works of artists from around the world, often acting as a role model for young American painters.” This information best supports answer choice C. The remaining answer choices are too narrow and do not reflect the main idea of the passage. 2. The best answer is A. Because the main idea of the passage is Mary Cassatt’s contribution to art and artists around the world, it makes sense that the author would characterize Cassatt as being focused on advancing the arts, both in her native country and abroad. Answer choices B and E directly contradict information presented in the passage, and answer choices C and D are not supported by information in the passage. 3. The best answer is B. While Mary Cassatt’s artistic versatility is discussed in the passage, there is no discussion of the specific brush strokes that she employed. The remaining answer choices are all mentioned specifically in the passage. 4. The best answer is E. While answer choice E might be a true statement, it is not relevant to the passage. The fact that lizards cool themselves by climbing onto vegetation has nothing to do with the fringe-toed lizard’s choice to search for insects under the intense heat; therefore, this selection would offer the least help in explaining the lizard’s actions. Each of the remaining answer choices provides a reason for the lizard’s choice to hunt under the hot desert sun: fewer predators, more insects available earlier in the day, less competition for food, and hotter temperatures inside the lizard’s burrow. 5. The best answer is A. This is a weaken question. Answer choice A weakens the conclusion of the argument by providing an alternate explanation for the similarity between the scenes in the two movies. In this instance, the alternate explanation that is offered is entirely plausible and would explain why the two scenes are so similar without blaming only the maker of the movie that came later in time for the similarity. Each of the other choices is irrelevant to the connection between the evidence presented and the stated conclusion. 6. The best answer is E. For this sentence to be correct, the two elements being compared in the sentence must be parallel. Therefore, the underlined portion should be “to the northern states” to parallel the movement “to the American South.” 7. The best answer is D. For this sentence to be correct, the two elements being compared in the sentence must be parallel. Therefore, the underlined portion should be “equivalent to the number of children enrolled in” to parallel the “number” of children being enrolled in soccer programs each year. 8. The best answer is C. As it is written, the sentence is a run-on sentence; the sentence contains two independent, but related, clauses that must be separated

53

Answers and Explanations

with some form of punctuation. Answer choice C is best because it is clear and correctly punctuated. Answer choice B is incorrect because it, too, is a run-on sentence. Answer choices D and E are awkward and contain misplaced modifiers. 9. The best answer is E. The correct answer, “one of whom,” properly identifies one specific choice among members of a group. In addition, whom is used as an object; in other words, an action (the singling out of the deaf speaker) is being performed on the pronoun whom. Who is the subject form of the pronoun—the one performing the action. 10. The best answer is C. The answer to this specific detail question can be found in the third paragraph, which states that “Earth’s mountain ranges were formed when continental plates collided, and the crust was compressed and forced upward.” The remaining answer choices are not supported by the passage. 11. The best answer is A. According to the passage, the theory that Africa and South America were once part of one large land mass is supported by evidence from the fossil record. The passage states that “Corresponding plant and animal fossils have been found along the matching coastlines of Africa and South America, even though those continents are now separated by the Atlantic Ocean.” Therefore, if data concerning the age and type of these fossils were found to be unreliable, the theory could be seriously undermined. Although the theory might also be undermined if it were found that the methods used to determine the movement of the continental plates could be improved upon, this finding would not have as serious an impact on the theory; therefore, answer choice C is not the best answer. This choice says nothing about the reliability or accuracy of the methods, only that they could be improved upon. 12. The best answer is B. According to the passage, the fossil evidence provides additional support for the theory of plate tectonics, which most likely means that, even without such evidence, researchers believe enough proof exists in the form of geologic phenomena such as earthquakes and volcanoes to promote plate tectonics as a viable theory. It is unlikely that the researchers would simply toss out the theory of plate tectonics, so answer choice A is incorrect. Likewise, the remaining answer choices are not supported by information in the passage. 13. The best answer is B. Although the sentence as it is written is not necessarily incorrect, it is awkward and wordy. By replacing the underlined portion with answer choice B, you create a succinct sentence that clearly conveys the intended idea. The remaining answer choices are awkward and wordy. Answer choice E also refers to a person, the leader, with the pronoun that instead of the correct pronoun who. 14. The best answer is B. This is an assumption question. Remember that an assumption is a piece of unstated evidence. If you negate B and say, “New behaviors that emerge in wolf populations over the course of a couple of decades are necessarily genetically predetermined,” you can see that this statement would directly contradict the conclusion of the stimulus argument, which is that the wolves’ behavior is evidence against genetically predetermined behavior. Because the negation of

54

Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

answer choice B conflicts with the conclusion of the stimulus argument, answer choice B, as originally stated, must be an important part of the argument. Negating any of the other answer choices results in a statement that is irrelevant to the argument, showing that each of the other choices is irrelevant to the argument and therefore not a suppressed premise. 15. The best answer is D. This is a flaw question. Remember that correlation does not prove causation. Simply finding two things together, in this case being in prison and a higher likelihood of mental illness, does not mean that one caused the other. In fact, based on the correlation given, it is just as likely that having a mental illness increases the likelihood that one will be incarcerated as that incarceration causes mental illness. While the other answer choices contain true statements, they fail to identify any flaw in the relationship between the evidence and the conclusion presented in the argument. 16. The best answer is D. This is an assumption question. The author of the argument must be assuming that public funds should be used to support literature, or nothing else in the argument would make any sense. If public funds should not be used to support literature, any discussion of what type of literature ought to be supported would be meaningless. The statements made in the other answer choices might be true, but they are not assumptions necessary to connect the stated evidence of the stimulus argument to its conclusion. 17. The best answer is E. In the sentence as it is written, the singular verb was incorrectly refers to the plural noun films. The singular verb was should be replaced with the plural verb were, as in answer choice E. Answer choices B and D are incorrect, in part, because they use the past tense verb form “would be” instead of the present tense verb form “will be.” Answer choice C is incorrect because it creates an incomplete sentence. 18. The best answer is D. The sentence as it is written incorrectly compares Beethoven’s music, which is a thing, to the “Ballad Babes,” who are people. Only answer choice D correctly compares Beethoven with the “Ballad Babes.” 19. The best answer is B. The passage discusses the course of events leading up to Lewis and Clark’s journey, and places particular emphasis on the purpose and results of this historically significant expedition. The remaining answer choices do not reflect the main idea or primary purpose of the passage. 20. The best answer is C. The answer to this specific detail question can be found in the first paragraph, which states “…the corps of volunteers for North Western Discovery set off under the command of Meriwether Lewis and William Clark to find the fastest water route across North America.” According to the passage, the men encountered unfriendly Indian tribes, but Lewis and Clark were not hired to engage these tribes in battle; answer choice A is incorrect. Likewise, Lewis and Clark might have attempted to do the things mentioned in the remaining answer choices, but none of those choices was the reason for the men being hired. 21. The best answer is D. The passage states that “…40-some men were to travel from there (St. Louis) to the Pacific Ocean in only the keelboat and two smaller

55

Answers and Explanations

boats, all of which were moved by sails, towropes, poles, or oars.” This information suggests that the trip would be very physically taxing and difficult, which best supports answer choice D. Answer choice A is incorrect because it contradicts information presented in the passage. The remaining answer choices are too general or beyond the scope of this passage. 22. The best answer is C. The word intrepid means “fearless and brave,” and is most likely used at this point in the passage to emphasize the courage that would be required of the explorers during their adventure. Neither the context of the passage nor the definition of intrepid support the remaining answer choices. 23. The best answer is B. This is an inference question. The only answer choice supported by the stimulus is B because it states that Theresa did something that was morally wrong. This is supported by the statement in the stimulus “…she did not recognize the fact that it was a morally wrong act,…” Answer choice A is incorrect because the stimulus also states that Theresa knew that her actions were illegal. Answer choice C is incorrect because the stimulus simply does not provide enough evidence to draw any conclusion about what is or is not never excused by the law. Likewise, answer choices D and E go far beyond the scope of the stimulus in discussing what could have happened or what might happen in the future. 24. The best answer is B. This is an assumption question. Only answer choice B provides the missing link between the stated evidence, that other theories predict behavior better than the Smith theory does, and the stated conclusion, that therefore, the Smith theory should be abandoned in favor of those theories. Answer choice A is incorrect because no evidence exists that the Smith theory led to predictions that proved to be false. The conclusion is supported even if the Smith theory did lead to some predictions that proved to be true, so long as the other theories’ predictions are more predictive. Answer choices C, D, and E are all irrelevant to the conclusion of the stimulus argument. 25. The best answer is B. For this sentence to be correct, the verb tenses must match. The verb predicts is in the present tense, which means that the verb form “would have failed” must be changed to the present tense: “will fail.” In addition, the past tense verb traveled should be changed to the present tense verb travel. The remaining answer choices use the incorrect verb tense and, in the case of answer choices D and E, also create an incomplete sentence. 26. The best answer is A. The sentence is best as written. It clearly and effectively conveys the intended meaning and is grammatically correct. The remaining answer choices are awkward and wordy. 27. The best answer is C. The sentence as it is written contains an ambiguous pronoun; it is unclear to whom or what the pronoun they is referring. You could assume that people is the correct antecedent, but the way the sentence is written suggests that studies is the antecedent, which doesn’t make sense. Answer choice B is incorrect for the same reason; in addition, it is logically unsound. Answer choices D and E are awkward and wordy.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

28. The best answer is A. The sentence is best as written. It clearly and effectively conveys the intended meaning and is grammatically correct; you should place a comma after an introductory prepositional phrase. The remaining answer choices are either awkward and wordy or are punctuated incorrectly. 29. The best answer is C. Throughout the passage, the author discusses Theodore Roosevelt’s physical limitations and his numerous attempts to overcome these limitations. The passage states that “(Theodore Roosevelt) carried the fight to the enemy” and “His first fight was for health and bodily vigor.” These statements and others found elsewhere within the passage point to Roosevelt’s tenacity and stubbornness when it came to defending himself and overcoming problems caused by his poorly developed physique. The remaining answer choices are not supported by the passage. 30. The best answer is A. The third paragraph discusses Roosevelt’s continuous fight for strength, and states that his prime motivation for numerous trips to the Maine woods “…was the obstinate determination to make himself physically fit.” Although this information also suggests that he was self-sufficient, the paragraph does not indicate that he was completely self-sufficient as a boy, so answer choice B is incorrect. The remaining answer choices are not supported by information in the third paragraph. 31. The best answer is B. The word discomfiture means “frustration or embarrassment,” and is used in the passage to describe how Roosevelt felt when he realized that either one of the two boys he encountered on his trip could beat him in a fight. By using the word discomfiture, the author implies that the reader should be concerned for Roosevelt’s well-being at the hands of these boys. Neither the context of the passage nor the definition of discomfiture supports the remaining answer choices. 32. The best answer is E. During its discussion of the roof-top gymnasium, the passage states that Roosevelt “…knew that his father was right, and so he took up the drudgery of daily, monotonous exercise with bars and rings and weights.” This best supports answer choice E. Roosevelt was clearly not thrilled with the gymnasium, nor was he enthusiastic about it; answer choices A and C are incorrect. Answer choice B is simply not supported by the passage. While you might assume that Roosevelt was disappointed that his lack of strength did not allow him to utilize the gymnasium to its fullest extent, answer choice D is not supported by information in the passage. 33. The best answer is C. In the sentence as it is written, the conjunction and is not correct. It would be better to use a conjunction such as because or replace the conjunction with a semicolon to separate the two independent, but related, clauses, as in answer choice C. While answer choice D includes a semicolon, the sentence is awkwardly constructed.

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Answers and Explanations

34. The best answer is A. The sentence is best as written. It clearly and effectively conveys the intended meaning and is grammatically correct. The remaining answer choices are awkwardly constructed. 35. The best answer is E. In the original sentence, the conjunction and is unnecessary. Answer choice E correctly eliminates the conjunction and, while maintaining proper punctuation. The remaining answer choices are either awkward or create incomplete sentences. 36. The best answer is D. This is a paradox question. The fact that most employees of Company X want their company to be more powerful than Company Y would explain why the employees prefer a situation where their company is ahead of Company Y in terms of gross revenues. Answer choice A is outside the scope of the stimulus because no information is presented on the growth rate of either company. Answer choice B is outside the scope of the stimulus because even if employees of Company X do want their gross revenues to be higher than $120 million, they would prefer the scenario where the revenues are already at $120 million than the scenario where the revenues are only $100 million. Answer choice C is irrelevant because it would not explain why employees would choose one scenario over the other. Answer choice E is irrelevant because the scenarios are based on gross revenues, not quality. 37. The best answer is D. The finding that X causes cancer in rabbits is the motivation for the proposed course of action: banning the use of X. Answer choice A is not correct because the conclusion of the physician’s argument is that X should be banned not to save rabbits, but to save humans from a similar fate. Answer choice B is incorrect because the physician does not assert or imply that cancer in lab rabbits is a benefit to anyone. Answer choices C and E are incorrect because the claim that similar research will never be done on humans is not actually supported. In fact, the physician uses the word probably in the statement as a way to avoid having to offer conclusive support. 38. The best answer is E. This is an inference question. The only answer choice that includes something that the reader can safely infer is that Carrie feels that wives should have been mentioned in the seminar title because a good portion of the discussion was devoted to wives. Answer choice A is incorrect because it is an exaggeration of Carrie’s position. Answer choice B is incorrect because it is not supported by any information in the stimulus. Just because Alan believes that the two roles, husband and wife, are parts of the same relationship, does not mean that he sees no distinction or difference between the roles. Answer choices C and D are both irrelevant to the stimulus because they go far beyond the scope of the evidence presented. 39. The best answer is C. This is an assumption question. If frustration is mutually exclusive of either pity or gratitude, the conclusion, that frustration in response to insults is unreasonable, is properly drawn. Each of the other answer choices is irrelevant to the conclusion.

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

40. The best answer is B. The sentence lists three elements that are separated by commas. To maintain parallel construction, “took” should be replaced with “taking.” 41. The best answer is A. The sentence is best as written. It clearly and effectively conveys the intended meaning and is grammatically correct. In answer choice D, the phrase “compared with” suggests a comparison between obesity and a certain time in history, which doesn’t make sense.

59

Answer Sheet

Answer Sheet Section 1: Analysis of an Argument Compose your analysis/critique on a separate sheet of paper and have someone evaluate your answer.

Section 2: Analysis of an Issue Compose your response on a separate sheet of paper and have someone evaluate your answer.

Section 3: Quantitative 1.     

14.     

27.     

2.     

15.     

28.     

3.     

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29.     

4.     

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30.     

5.     

18.     

31.     

6.     

19.     

32.     

7.     

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33.     

8.     

21.     

34.     

9.     

22.     

35.     

10.     

23.     

36.     

11.     

24.     

37.     

12.     

25.     

13.     

26.     

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Chapter 3: Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

Section 4: Verbal 1.     

15.     

29.     

2.     

16.     

30.     

3.     

17.     

31.     

4.     

18.     

32.     

5.     

19.     

33.     

6.     

20.     

34.     

7.     

21.     

35.     

8.     

22.     

36.     

9.     

23.     

37.     

10.     

24.     

38.     

11.     

25.     

39.     

12.     

26.     

40.     

13.     

27.     

41.     

14.     

28.     

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Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations - Pearsoncmg.com

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